Self-Assessment Questions

46. Sexually transmitted diseases of bacterial origin

• A 21-year-old woman presents to clinic with pelvic discomfort, dysuria and vaginal discharge. You diagnose her with a chlamydial infection and treat her with azithromycin and a cephalosporin. You then advise her to have her partner treated as well. She asks why you treated her with two different antibiotics, and why her partner needs to be treated as well if he has been asymptomatic. How do you respond?

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  Correct answer:
  Because of the frequent coexistence of gonorrhea and chlamydial infection, it is prudent to treat for both organisms with their respective antibiotics. In this case, she was given azithromycin for chlamydia and a cephalosporin for gonorrhea. Regarding her partner, men can be relatively asymptomatic despite having a chlamydial infection. It is important for him to be treated so that he will not further transmit the disease or reinfect the patient.